Updated: Aug 10, 2009
Atrial tachycardia is a rhythm disturbance that arises in the atria. Atrial tachycardia is defined as a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) that does not require the atrioventricular (AV) junction, accessory pathways, or ventricular tissue for initiation and maintenance of the tachycardia. In common with most of the SVTs, the ECG typically shows a narrow QRS complex tachycardia (unless bundle branch block aberration occurs). Heart rates during atrial tachycardia are highly variable, with a range of 100-250 beats per minute (bpm). The atrial rhythm is usually regular. The conducted ventricular rhythm is also usually regular but may become irregular, often at higher atrial rates because of variable conduction through the AV node, thus producing conduction patterns such as 2:1, 4:1, a combination of those, or Wenckebach AV block.
The P wave morphology as observed on the ECG may give clues to the site of origin and mechanism of the atrial tachycardia. In the case of a focal tachycardia, the P wave morphology and axis depend on the location in the atrium from which the tachycardia originates. In the case of macroreentrant circuits, the P wave morphology and axis depend on activation patterns. (For more in-depth discussion please see diagnosis section.)
Classification of atrial tachycardia
A number of methods are used to classify atrial tachycardia, including origin as based on endocardial activation mapping data, pathophysiologic mechanisms, and anatomy.
Based on endocardial activation, atrial tachycardia may be divided into 2 groups. The first is focal atrial tachycardia, which arises from a localized area in the atria such as the crista terminalis, pulmonary veins, ostium of the coronary sinus, or intra-atrial septum. Focal atrial tachycardia that originates from the pulmonary veins may trigger atrial fibrillation, and often forms a continuum of arrhythmias. The second group is the reentrant atrial tachycardias. These reentrant (usually macro-reentrant) atrial tachycardias most commonly occur in persons with structural heart disease, complex heart disease, and particularly after surgery involving incisions or scarring in the atria. Electrophysiologically, these atrial tachycardias are similar to atrial flutters, typical or atypical. Often, the distinction is semantic, typically based on arbitrary cutoffs of atrial rate.
Sinoatrial reentrant tachycardia (or sinus node reentry) is a subset of focal atrial tachycardia due to reentry arising within the sinus node situated at the superior aspect of the crista terminalis. The P wave morphology and atrial activation sequence are identical or very similar to those of sinus tachycardia. Another tachycardia that mimics atrial tachycardia is inappropriate sinus tachycardia. Inappropriate sinus tachycardia and postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS) strictly are not atrial tachycardias because their origin is not abnormal. They are due to sinus tachycardia related to enhanced sinus automaticity or due to abnormal autonomic function (dysautonomia).
Atrial tachycardia may be classified according to the following pathophysiologic mechanisms: enhanced automaticity, triggered activity, or reentry.
Anatomical classification of atrial tachycardia is based on the location of the arrhythmicogenic focus. Atrial tachycardia can have either a right or a left atrial origin. Some atrial tachycardias actually originate outside the usual anatomic boundaries of the atria, in areas such as the superior vena cava, pulmonary veins, and vein of Marshall, where fingers of atrial myocardium extend into these locations. Rare locations like noncoronary aortic cusp1 and hepatic veins have been described as well. These may be focal or reentrant.
Arrhythmogenic atrial structures
A number of aspects of the atrial anatomy can contribute to the substrate for arrhythmia. The orifices of the vena cava, pulmonary veins, coronary sinus, atrial septum, and mitral and tricuspid annuli are potential anatomic boundaries for reentrant circuits. Anisotropic conduction in the atria due to complex fiber orientation may create the zone of slow conduction. Certain atrial tissues, such as the crista terminalis and pulmonary veins, are common sites for automaticity or triggered activity. Additionally, disease processes or age-related degeneration of the atria may give rise to the arrhythmogenic substrate.
Pathophysiologic mechanisms
Several pathophysiologic mechanisms have been ascribed to atrial tachycardia. These mechanisms can be differentiated based on the pattern of onset and termination and response to drugs and atrial pacing.
Enhanced automaticity
Automatic atrial tachycardia is observed both in patients with normal heart structure and in those with organic heart disease. The tachycardia typically exhibits a warm-up phenomenon, during which the atrial rate gradually accelerates after its initiation and slows prior to its termination. It is rarely initiated or terminated by single atrial stimulation or rapid atrial pacing, but it may be transiently suppressed by overdrive pacing. Carotid sinus massage and adenosine do not terminate the tachycardia even if they produce a transient AV nodal block. Electrical cardioversion is ineffective (being equivalent to attempting electrical cardioversion in a sinus tachycardia).
Triggered activity
Triggered activity is due to delayed after-depolarizations, which are low-amplitude oscillations occurring at the end of the action potential. These oscillations are triggered by the preceding action potential and are the result of calcium ion influxes into the myocardium. If these oscillations are of sufficient amplitude to reach the threshold potential, depolarization occurs again and a spontaneous action potential is generated. If single, this is recognized as an atrial ectopic beat (an extra or premature beat). If it recurs and spontaneous depolarization continues, a sustained tachycardia may result. These tachycardias can be also induced with rapid atrial pacing.
Most commonly, atrial tachycardia due to triggered activity occurs in patients with digitalis intoxication2 or conditions associated with excess catecholamines. Characteristically, the arrhythmia can be initiated, accelerated, and terminated by rapid atrial pacing. It may be sensitive to physiologic and pharmacologic maneuvers such as adenosine, verapamil, and beta-blockers, which all can terminate the tachycardia. Occasionally, this atrial tachycardia may arise from multiple sites in the atria, producing a multifocal or multiform atrial tachycardia. This may be recognized by varying P wave morphology and irregularity in the atrial rhythm.
Pulmonary vein tachycardias originate from the os of the pulmonary vein or even deeper localized atrial fibers. These strands of atrial tissue are generally believed to gain electrical independence since are they are partially isolated from the atrial myocardium. These tachycardias are typically very rapid (with heart rate >200-220 bpm), and although they frequently trigger episodes of atrial fibrillation, the associated atrial tachycardias may also be the clinically dominant or exclusive manifestation. The latter typically involves only a single pulmonary vein as opposed to multiple pulmonary vein involvement seen in atrial fibrillation.
Reentrant tachycardia
Intra-atrial reentry tachycardias may have either a macroreentrant or a microreentrant circuit.
Macroreentry is the usual mechanism in atrial flutter and in scar- and incision-related (postsurgical) atrial tachycardia. The more common and recognized form of atrial tachycardia seen with the advent of pulmonary vein isolation and linear ablation procedures is left atrial tachycardia, using gaps in the ablation lines that allow for slow conduction, providing the requisite anatomic substrate for reentry. These tachycardia may be self limiting, but if they persist, mapping and a repeat ablative procedure can be considered.
Microreentry can arise in a small focal area such as in sinus node reentrant tachycardia. Typically, reentrant atrial tachycardia arises suddenly, terminates suddenly, and is paroxysmal. Carotid sinus massage and adenosine are ineffective in terminating the tachycardia even if they produce a transient AV nodal block. During electrophysiologic study, it can be induced and terminated by programmed extrastimulation. As is typical in other reentry tachycardias, electrical cardioversion terminates this type of atrial tachycardia.
Atrial tachycardia is relatively rare, constituting 5-15% of all SVTs. Because there is an association with congenital heart disease, it is more common in the pediatric population. Atrial tachycardia can be observed in persons with normal hearts and in those with structurally abnormal hearts, including those with congenital heart disease and particularly after surgery for repair or correction of congenital or valvular heart disease.
No national differences in the incidence of atrial tachycardia have been reported.
In patients with structurally normal hearts, this arrhythmia is associated with a low mortality rate. However, tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathies have been associated with atrial tachycardia in patients in whom the rhythm is persistent or frequently incessant. Patients with underlying structural heart disease, congenital heart disease, or lung disease are less likely to be able to tolerate atrial tachycardia. Other morbidity is associated with lifestyle changes and associated symptoms.
Atrial tachycardia has no known racial or ethnic predilection.
The condition has no known predilection for either sex. There may be some association with pregnancy.
Atrial tachycardia may occur at any age, although it is more common in children and adults with congenital heart disease.
Patients with focal atrial tachycardia usually present with episodic or paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
Atrial Fibrillation
Atrial Flutter
Atrioventricular Nodal Reentry Tachycardia
(AVNRT)
Atrioventricular Reentrant Tachycardia
Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia
The differential diagnosis of atrial tachycardia is the differential diagnosis of SVT and includes the following:
Sinus tachycardia
Atrial tachycardia
Atrial flutter
Atrial fibrillation
AV junction–dependent reentrant tachycardias (AV nodal reentrant tachycardia and AV reentrant tachycardia using an accessory pathway)
Differentiating among these diagnoses requires ECG analysis of the tachycardia for P wave activity. The ECG of an SVT typically has narrow QRS complexes (unless aberrant conduction with typical left or right bundle branch block occurs).
Assessment of the P waves and their relationship to the QRS complex (R waves) may reveal 2 different observations, as follows:
For multifocal atrial tachycardia, the differential diagnosis includes atrial fibrillation because both can manifest with an irregular pulse.
Iatrogenic atrial tachycardias: These tachycardias are now more often seen and typically result from extensive ablative procedures in the left atrium. Several areas of typical location for these tachycardias have been identified. These locations include the mitral isthmus (between the left lower pulmonary vein and mitral annulus), the roof of the left atrium, or reentry around the pulmonary veins. The most common reason for these tachycardias are gaps in the ablation lines allowing for slow conduction and initiation reentry circuits or circuits excluded by the set of ablation lines. Typically, these patients have undergone atrial fibrillation ablation procedure in the past. This is true for both catheter ablation as well as surgical epicardial ablation. Similarly, patients with prior surgical procedures involving the left atrium may have surgical incision lines and hence potential for macroentrant circuits.
For patients with complex congenital heart disease, surgical ablation may occasionally be useful. However, this is generally supplanted by radiofrequency ablation approaches.
At surgery, particularly for congenital heart disease and particularly if complex, such as the Fontan procedure, incisions should be situated or extended to lines of natural conduction block to prevent subsequent incisional- or scar-related atrial reentrant tachycardias.
Consultation with a cardiologist or electrophysiologist is recommended for all patients with atrial tachycardia and when structural heart disease is diagnosed or considered.
Consultation with a cardiologist or electrophysiologist is strongly recommended before initiating therapy with any antiarrhythmic agents because the results of a comprehensive cardiac workup might be needed to guide treatment. See Medical Care for further discussion.
Effective for reducing frequency and severity of episodes via control of ventricular response during tachycardia and by reduction of frequency in a subgroup of patients for whom tachycardia is sensitive to catecholamine.
Selectively blocks beta-1 receptors, with little or no effect on beta-2 receptors.
50 mg PO qd; increase to 100 mg/d prn
1-2 mg/kg/dose PO qd
Coadministration with aluminum salts, barbiturates, calcium salts, cholestyramine, NSAIDs, penicillins, and rifampin may decrease effects; haloperidol, hydralazine, loop diuretics, and MAOIs may increase toxicity
Documented hypersensitivity; CHF; pulmonary edema; cardiogenic shock; AV conduction abnormalities; heart block (without a pacemaker)
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Beta-adrenergic blockade may reduce symptoms of acute hypoglycemia and mask signs of hyperthyroidism; abrupt withdrawal may exacerbate symptoms of hyperthyroidism and may cause thyroid storm; monitor patients closely and withdraw drug slowly; during IV, carefully monitor BP, heart rate, and ECG
Selective, hydrophilic beta-blocking drug with mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.
400 mg PO qd initially given as 200 mg bid; titrate to 600-1200 mg/d in divided doses based on clinical response
Not established
Aluminum salts, barbiturates, NSAIDs, penicillins, calcium salts, cholestyramine, and rifampin may decrease bioavailability and plasma levels, possibly resulting in decreased pharmacologic effect; cardiotoxicity may increase when administered concurrently with sparfloxacin, astemizole, calcium channel blockers, quinidine, flecainide, or contraceptives; toxicity increases when administered concurrently with digoxin, flecainide, acetaminophen, clonidine, epinephrine, nifedipine, prazosin, haloperidol, phenothiazines, or catecholamine-depleting agents
Documented hypersensitivity; cardiogenic shock; bradycardia or heart block; sinus node dysfunction; AV conduction abnormalities
B - Fetal risk not confirmed in studies in humans but has been shown in some studies in animals
Beta-adrenergic blockade may decrease signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia and clinical signs of hyperthyroidism; abrupt withdrawal may exacerbate symptoms of hyperthyroidism and may cause thyroid storm; withdraw drug slowly and monitor patient closely; caution in hypokalemia, peripheral vascular disease, hypomagnesemia, and CHF
Excellent drug for use in patients at risk for experiencing complications from beta-blockade. Selectively blocks beta-1 receptors with little or no effect on beta-2 receptors.
Loading dose: 250-500 mcg/kg/min IV for 1 min followed by a 4-min maintenance infusion of 50 mcg/kg/min
If adequate therapeutic effect not observed within 5 min, repeat loading dose and follow with maintenance infusion using increments of 50 mcg/kg/min (for 4 min); sequence may be repeated up to 4 times prn
As the desired heart rate is approached, omit loading infusion and reduce incremental dose of maintenance infusion from 50 mcg/kg/min to 25 mcg/kg/min or lower; interval between titration steps may be increased from 5-10 min prn
Not established; suggested dose is 100-500 mcg/kg IV administered over 1 min
Aluminum salts, barbiturates, NSAIDs, penicillins, calcium salts, cholestyramine, and rifampin may decrease bioavailability and plasma levels, possibly resulting in decreased pharmacologic effect; cardiotoxicity may increase when administered concurrently with sparfloxacin, astemizole, calcium channel blockers, quinidine, flecainide, or contraceptives; toxicity increases when administered concurrently with digoxin, flecainide, acetaminophen, clonidine, epinephrine, nifedipine, prazosin, haloperidol, phenothiazines, or catecholamine-depleting agents
Documented hypersensitivity; uncompensated CHF; bradycardia; cardiogenic shock; AV conduction abnormalities
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Beta-adrenergic blockers may mask signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia and clinical signs of hyperthyroidism; symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including thyroid storm, may worsen when medication is abruptly withdrawn; withdraw drug slowly and monitor patient closely
Amiodarone and sotalol have been shown to be effective in maintaining sinus rhythm after converting from atrial tachycardia.
May inhibit AV conduction and sinus node function. Prolongs action potential and refractory period in myocardium and inhibits adrenergic stimulation. Prior to administration, control ventricular rate and CHF (if present) with digoxin or calcium channel blockers.
Loading dose: 600-1200 mg/d PO in 1-2 doses for 1-2 wk; then, decrease to 400-600 mg/d in 1-2 doses for 1-3 wk
Maintenance dose: 200 mg/d PO
Alternatively: 150 mg (10 mL) IV over first 10 min, followed by 360 mg (200 mL) over next 6 h, then 540 mg over next 18 h
10-15 mg/kg/d or 600-800 mg/1.73 m2/d PO for 4-14 d or until adequate control of arrhythmia is attained
Increases effect and blood levels of theophylline, quinidine, procainamide, phenytoin, methotrexate, flecainide, digoxin, cyclosporine, beta-blockers, and anticoagulants; cardiotoxicity is increased by ritonavir, sparfloxacin, and disopyramide; coadministration with calcium channel blockers may cause an additive effect and further decrease myocardial contractility; cimetidine may increase levels; protease inhibitors (eg, indinavir, ritonavir, amprenavir, nelfinavir) inhibit metabolism, resulting in increased serum levels and possible prolongation of QT interval
Documented hypersensitivity; complete AV block; intraventricular conduction defects; coadministration with ritonavir or sparfloxacin
D - Fetal risk shown in humans; use only if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Caution in thyroid or liver disease
Class III antiarrhythmic agent, which blocks potassium channels, prolongs action potential duration, and lengthens QT interval. Non–cardiac-selective beta-adrenergic blocker.
80 mg PO bid and increase dose gradually q2-3d to 240-320 mg/d
Not established
Aluminum salts, barbiturates, NSAIDs, penicillins, calcium salts, cholestyramine, and rifampin may decrease bioavailability and plasma levels, possibly resulting in decreased pharmacologic effect; cardiotoxicity may increase when administered concurrently with sparfloxacin, calcium channel blockers, quinidine, flecainide, or contraceptives; toxicity increases when administered concurrently with digoxin, flecainide, acetaminophen, clonidine, epinephrine, nifedipine, prazosin, haloperidol, phenothiazines, or catecholamine-depleting agents
Documented hypersensitivity; sinus bradycardia; second- or third-degree AV block; baseline QT interval >450 milliseconds; bronchial asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; cardiogenic shock; congenital or acquired long QT syndromes; creatinine clearance <40 mL/min; overt cardiac failure
B - Fetal risk not confirmed in studies in humans but has been shown in some studies in animals
Beta-adrenergic blockade may decrease signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia and clinical signs of hyperthyroidism; abrupt withdrawal may exacerbate symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including thyroid storm; withdraw drug slowly and monitor patient closely; caution in hypokalemia, peripheral vascular disease, hypomagnesemia, and CHF
Have been tried in patients with atrial tachycardia and disabling symptoms in whom beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers were unsuccessful. These agents are proarrhythmic; use caution.
Increases refractory period of atria and ventricles. Myocardial excitability is reduced by an increase in threshold for excitation and inhibition of ectopic pacemaker activity.
20-30 mg/min IV at continued infusion rates until arrhythmia is suppressed, patient becomes hypotensive, QRS widens 50% above baseline, or a maximum dose of 17 mg/kg is administered
Once arrhythmia is suppressed, may infuse at a continuous rate of 1-4 mg/min
Not established; the following doses have been suggested:
15-50 mg/kg/d PO divided q3-6h; not to exceed 4 g/d
20-30 mg/kg/d IM divided q4-6h; not to exceed 4 g/d
3-6 mg/kg/dose IV infused over 5 min
Maintenance: 20-80 mcg/kg/min administered as continuous infusion; not to exceed 100 mg/dose or 2 g/d
Can expect increased levels of procainamide metabolite NAPA in patients taking cimetidine, ranitidine, beta-blockers, amiodarone, trimethoprim or quinidine; may increase effect of skeletal muscle relaxants (eg, quinidine, lidocaine) and neuromuscular blockers; ofloxacin inhibits tubular secretion of procainamide and may increase bioavailability; when taken concurrently with sparfloxacin, may increase risk of cardiotoxicity
Complete heart block or second- or third-degree heart block, if a pacemaker is not in place; torsade de pointes; documented hypersensitivity; systemic lupus erythematosus
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Monitor for hypotension; plasma concentrations of procainamide and active metabolite NAPA may increase in renal failure; high or toxic concentrations may induce AV block or abnormal automaticity; caution in complete AV block, digitalis intoxication, organic heart disease, renal disease, and hepatic insufficiency
Have been used in patients with atrial tachycardia and disabling symptoms in whom beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers were unsuccessful. Recommended use is with beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker.
Blocks sodium channels, producing dose-related decrease in intracardiac conduction in all parts of heart. Increases electrical stimulation of threshold of ventricle, His-Purkinje system. Shortens phase 2 and 3 repolarization, resulting in decreased action potential duration and effective refractory period.
Indicated for the treatment of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation/flutter associated with disabling symptoms and paroxysmal SVTs, including AV nodal reentrant tachycardia, AV reentrant tachycardia, and other SVTs of unspecified mechanism associated with disabling symptoms in patients without structural heart disease. Also indicated for prevention of documented life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias (eg, sustained ventricular tachycardia). Not recommended in less severe ventricular arrhythmias, even if patients are symptomatic.
50 mg PO q12h; increase q4d; not to exceed 300 mg/d
As little as 50 mg PO q12h may be effective in children and adults
3-6 mg/kg/d or 100-150 mg/m2/d PO divided tid to 11 mg/kg/d or 200 mg/m2/d
May increase toxicity of digoxin; beta-adrenergic blockers, verapamil, and disopyramide may have additive inotropic effects when administered with flecainide; CYP-4502D6 inhibitors (eg, ritonavir, cimetidine, amiodarone) may increase serum levels and cardiotoxicity
Documented hypersensitivity; preexisting second- or third-degree AV block; right bundle-branch block associated with left hemiblock (bifascicular block) or trifascicular block (unless a pacemaker is present to sustain the cardiac rhythm if complete heart block occurs); concurrent use of ritonavir or amprenavir; recent MI
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Caution in preexisting sinus node dysfunction, history of CHF, sick sinus syndrome, post-MI, or myocardial dysfunction; reserve use for life-threatening arrhythmias, deaths are associated with proarrhythmic effects of class IC antiarrhythmics; adjust dose in renal or hepatic impairment
Shortens upstroke velocity (phase 0) of monophasic action potential. Reduces fast inward current carried by sodium ions in Purkinje fibers, and, to a lesser extent, myocardial fibers. May increase diastolic excitability threshold and prolong effective refractory period. Reduces spontaneous automaticity and depresses triggered activity.
Indicated for treatment of documented life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias (eg, sustained ventricular tachycardia). Appears effective in treatment of SVTs, including atrial fibrillation and flutter. Not recommended in patients with less severe ventricular arrhythmias, even if symptomatic.
150 mg PO q8h and increase at 3- to 4-d intervals; not to exceed 300 mg q8h
Not established
Rifampin may decrease plasma levels; quinidine may increase pharmacologic effects; may increase plasma levels of beta-blockers, cyclosporine, warfarin, and digoxin; CYP-4502D6 inhibitors (eg, ritonavir, cimetidine, amiodarone) may increase serum levels and cardiotoxicity
Documented hypersensitivity; second- or third-degree AV block; right bundle-branch block associated with left hemiblock (bifascicular block) or trifascicular block; concurrent use of ritonavir or amprenavir
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Caution in preexisting sinus node dysfunction, history of CHF, sick sinus syndrome, post-MI, or myocardial dysfunction; reserve use for life-threatening arrhythmias, deaths are associated with proarrhythmic effects of class IC antiarrhythmics; adjust dose in renal or hepatic impairment
Via specialized conducting and automatic cells in the heart, calcium is involved in the generation of the action potential. Inhibit movement of calcium ions across cell membrane, depressing both impulse formation (automaticity) and conduction velocity. Especially effective in atrial tachycardia with triggered activity as underlying mechanism.
During depolarization, inhibits calcium ions from entering slow channels and voltage-sensitive areas of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium.
Cardizem SR: 60-120 mg PO bid
Cardizem CD: 180-240 mg PO qd
Dilacor: 180-240 mg PO qd
Not established
May increase carbamazepine, digoxin, cyclosporine, and theophylline levels; when administered with amiodarone, may cause bradycardia and a decrease in cardiac output; when given with beta-blockers, may increase cardiac depression; cimetidine may increase levels
Documented hypersensitivity; severe CHF; sick sinus syndrome; second- or third-degree AV block; hypotension (<90 mm Hg systolic)
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Caution in impaired renal or hepatic function; may increase LFT results, and hepatic injury may occur
During depolarization, inhibits calcium ion from entering slow channels or voltage-sensitive areas of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium.
80-160 mg PO tid
Alternatively: 5-10 mg IV followed by a second dose 15-30 min later if patient does not satisfactorily respond to initial dose
ER dosage form may be given qd
Not established
May increase carbamazepine, digoxin, and cyclosporine levels; coadministration with amiodarone can cause bradycardia and a decrease in cardiac output; when administered concurrently with beta-blockers, may increase cardiac depression; cimetidine may increase levels; may increase theophylline levels
Documented hypersensitivity; severe CHF; sick sinus syndrome or second- or third-degree AV block; hypotension (<90 mm Hg systolic)
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Hepatocellular injury may occur; transient elevations of transaminases with and without concomitant elevations in alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin have occurred (elevations have been transient and may disappear with continued treatment); monitor liver function periodically
Alter the electrophysiologic mechanisms responsible for arrhythmia.
Digitalis in toxic doses can cause atrial tachycardia. In therapeutic doses, digitalis may be useful in some focal atrial tachycardias. It should be considered if beta-blockers are contraindicated or if beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers are unsuccessful in controlling the arrhythmia medically.
Adenosine is an ultra–short-acting drug that is useful in SVTs of unknown origin both in making the diagnosis and in terminating those that are dependent on the AV junction and some focal atrial tachycardia. If adenosine successfully terminates an atrial tachycardia, those patients may respond to beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers.
Has direct inotropic effects and indirect effects on the cardiovascular system. Acts directly on cardiac muscle, increasing myocardial systolic contractions. Indirect actions result in increased carotid sinus nerve activity and enhanced sympathetic withdrawal for any given increase in mean arterial pressure.
0.5 mg IV over 10-15 min, followed by 0.25 mg q6-8h; not to exceed 1.5 mg/d
Alternatively: 0.5-0.75 mg PO initially, followed by 0.125-0.375 mg q6h
Maintenance: 0.125-0.375 mg PO qd
Digitalization in infants and children not generally recommended; suggested doses are as follows:
Premature neonates: 15-25 mcg/kg PO/IV divided into 3 or more doses (first dose equal to half total dose); then, remaining doses q6-8h
Maintenance for premature neonates: 4-6 mcg/kg/d PO/IV divided bid
Neonates: 20-30 mcg/kg PO/IV divided into 3 or more doses (first dose equal to half total dose); then, remaining doses q6-8h
Maintenance for neonates: 5-8 mcg/kg/d PO/IV divided bid
<2 years: 30-50 mcg/kg PO/IV divided into 3 or more doses (first dose half total dose); then, remaining doses q6-8h; 7.5-12 mcg/kg/d PO/IV divided bid
2-5 years: 25-35 mcg/kg PO/IV divided into 3 or more doses (first dose equal to half total dose); then, remaining doses q6-8h
Maintenance for <2 years and 2-5 years: 6-9 mcg/kg/d PO/IV divided bid
6-10 years: 15-30 mcg/kg PO/IV divided into 3 or more doses (first dose equal to half total dose); then, remaining doses q6-8h
Maintenance for 6-10 years: 4-8 mcg/kg/d PO/IV divided bid
>10 years: 8-12 mcg/kg PO/IV divided into 3 or more doses (first dose equal to half total dose); then, remaining doses q6-8h
Maintenance for >10 years: 2-3 mcg/kg/d PO/IV qd
IV calcium may produce arrhythmias in digitalized patients; medications that may increase levels include alprazolam, benzodiazepines, bepridil, captopril, cyclosporine, propafenone, propantheline, quinidine, diltiazem, aminoglycosides, oral amiodarone, anticholinergics, diphenoxylate, erythromycin, felodipine, flecainide, hydroxychloroquine, itraconazole, nifedipine, omeprazole, quinine, ibuprofen, indomethacin, esmolol, tetracycline, tolbutamide, and verapamil
Medications that may decrease serum levels include aminoglutethimide, antihistamines, cholestyramine, neomycin, penicillamine, aminoglycosides, oral colestipol, hydantoins, hypoglycemic agents, antineoplastic treatment combinations (including carmustine, bleomycin, methotrexate, cytarabine, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, procarbazine), aluminum or magnesium antacids, rifampin, sucralfate, sulfasalazine, barbiturates, kaolin/pectin, and aminosalicylic acid
Documented hypersensitivity; beriberi heart disease; idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis; constrictive pericarditis; carotid sinus syndrome
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Hypokalemia may reduce positive inotropic effect of digitalis; hypercalcemia predisposes patient to digitalis toxicity, and hypocalcemia can make digoxin ineffective until serum calcium levels are normal; magnesium replacement therapy must be instituted in patients with hypomagnesemia to prevent digitalis toxicity; patients diagnosed with incomplete AV block may progress to complete block when treated with digoxin; exercise caution in hypothyroidism, hypoxia, and acute myocarditis; adjust dose in renal impairment; highly toxic (overdoses can be fatal)
Short-acting agent that alters potassium conductance into cells and results in hyperpolarization of nodal cells. This increases the threshold to trigger an action potential and results in sinus slowing and blockage of AV conduction. As a result of its short half-life, adenosine is best administered in an antecubital vein as an IV bolus followed by rapid saline infusion.
6 mg rapid IV bolus (antecubital vein) initially, followed by saline flush; second bolus of 12 mg may be given if initial bolus is unsuccessful
0.05-0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push, increasing increments of 0.05 mg/kg IV bolus q2min until tachycardia resolves; not to exceed 12 mg
Coadministration with carbamazepine may produce higher degrees of heart block; dipyridamole may potentiate effects; methylxanthines may antagonize effects
Documented hypersensitivity; second- or third-degree AV block or sick sinus syndrome (except in patients with functioning artificial pacemaker); atrial flutter; atrial fibrillation; ventricular tachycardia
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Adenosine-induced bronchoconstriction may occur in patients with asthma
Admission is not generally required unless significant comorbidities exist, the tachycardia is incessant, or it is poorly tolerated. Initial ECG and immediate telemetry evaluations in the emergency department help document the tachycardia.
Frequent and incessant atrial tachycardia has been associated with tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy. This might be reversible if atrial tachycardia is treated promptly.
If the patient does not have structural heart disease, the prognosis is good and the associated mortality rate is extremely low. Atrial tachycardia is a relatively difficult arrhythmia to treat in those patients with frequent episodes. If it is persistent and the ventricular rate is rapid, over time it may cause a tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy.
For excellent patient education resources, visit eMedicine's Heart Center. Also, see eMedicine's patient education articles Supraventricular Tachycardia and Palpitations.
The full clinical presentation must be considered. New-onset atrial tachycardias by themselves are relatively benign. However, if the patient also has new problems (eg, chest pain, unexplained dyspnea, inappropriate hypotension) or a recent illness, perform a more extensive workup because atrial tachycardia may not be the primary problem. Also, with frequent or incessant tachycardia, tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy may develop.
Video available at http://img.medscape.com/pi/emed/ckb/cardiology/150072-1332317-151456-1657459.flv.
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supraventricular tachycardia, SVT, palpitations, PAT, AT, focal atrial tachycardia, macroreentrant tachycardia, macro-reentrant tachycardia, cardiomyopathy, cardiomyopathies, micro-reentrant tachycardia, microreentrant tachycardia, heart palpitations, arrhythmia, tachycardia, multifocal atrial tachycardia, multiform atrial tachycardia, pulmonary vein tachycardia.
Adam S Budzikowski, MD, PhD, Assistant Professor of Medicine, Division of Cardiovascular Medicine, Electrophysiology Section, State University of New York-Downstate, University Hospital of Brooklyn
Adam S Budzikowski, MD, PhD is a member of the following medical societies: American College of Cardiology, European Society of Cardiology, and Polish Society of Cardiology
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Dariusz Michałkiewicz, MD, Head, Electrophysiology Department, Military Medical Institute, Poland
Dariusz Michałkiewicz, MD is a member of the following medical societies: Heart Rhythm Society and Polish Society of Cardiology
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Justin D Pearlman, MD, PhD, ME, MA, Director of Advanced Cardiovascular Imaging, Professor of Medicine, Professor of Radiology, Adjunct Professor, Thayer Bioengineering and Computer Science, Dartmouth-Hitchcock Medical Center
Justin D Pearlman, MD, PhD, ME, MA is a member of the following medical societies: American College of Cardiology, American College of Physicians, American Federation for Medical Research, International Society for Magnetic Resonance in Medicine, and Radiological Society of North America
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Francisco Talavera, PharmD, PhD, Senior Pharmacy Editor, eMedicine
Disclosure: eMedicine Salary Employment
Brian Olshansky, MD, Professor of Medicine, Department of Internal Medicine, University of Iowa College of Medicine
Brian Olshansky, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American Autonomic Society, American College of Cardiology, American College of Chest Physicians, American College of Physicians, American College of Sports Medicine, American Federation for Clinical Research, American Heart Association, Cardiac Electrophysiology Society, Heart Rhythm Society, and New York Academy of Sciences
Disclosure: Guidant/Boston Scientific Honoraria Speaking and teaching; Medtronic Honoraria Speaking and teaching; Guidant/Boston Scientific Consulting fee Consulting; Reliant Grant/research funds Other; Novartis Honoraria Speaking and teaching; Novartis Consulting fee Consulting
Amer Suleman, MD, Consultant in Electrophysiology and Cardiovascular Medicine, Department of Internal Medicine, Division of Cardiology, Medical City Dallas Hospital
Amer Suleman, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American College of Physicians, American Heart Association, American Institute of Stress, American Society of Hypertension, Federation of American Societies for Experimental Biology, Royal Society of Medicine, and Society of Cardiac Angiography and Interventions
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Jeffrey N Rottman, MD, Professor of Medicine and Pharmacology, Director, Clinical Cardiac Electrophysiology Fellowship Program, Vanderbilt University School of Medicine; Chief, Department of Cardiology, Nashville Veterans Affairs Medical Center
Jeffrey N Rottman, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American Heart Association and North American Society of Pacing and Electrophysiology (NASPE)
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
The authors and editors of eMedicine gratefully acknowledge the contributions of previous authors Li Zhou, MD; Grzegorz Rozmus, MD; James P Daubert, MD; David Huang, MD; Andrzej M Okreglicki, MB, ChB, MMed; and Hongsheng M Guo, MD.
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