Updated: Aug 20, 2008
Disulfiram (tetraethylthiuram disulfide [TETD]) has been used for more than 50 years as a deterrent to ethanol abuse in the management of alcoholism. Approximately 200,000 alcoholics take disulfiram, or Antabuse, regularly in the United States.
The first suggestion that disulfiram might be used in the treatment of alcoholism came in 1937 when an American physician noted that workers in the rubber industry who were exposed to TETD developed a reaction after drinking ethanol. A decade later, two Danish researchers at the Royal Danish School of Pharmacy in Copenhagen made the same discovery. Jens Hald and Eric Jacobsen were experimenting with disulfiram as a potential antihelminthic, and each took small doses to determine potential side effects in humans. Several days later, they attended a cocktail party and both became ill. They concluded that the facial flushing and tachycardia they experienced must be due to the disulfiram.
Soon thereafter, physicians began prescribing disulfiram as a deterrent to ethanol abuse. It has also been proposed as a deterrent to cocaine abuse, and several studies have suggested improved retention rates in treatment programs for cocaine-dependent individuals treated with disulfiram. A study found diminished "high" or "rush" after intravenous cocaine administration to healthy volunteers pretreated with disulfiram, with no change in cardiovascular parameters.1
The disulfiram-ethanol reaction (DER) is due to increased serum acetaldehyde concentrations generated by the metabolism of ethanol by alcohol dehydrogenase in the liver. Normally, this acetaldehyde is cleared rapidly by its metabolism to acetate via aldehyde dehydrogenase. Disulfiram blocks this enzyme, irreversibly inhibiting the oxidation of acetaldehyde and causing a marked increase in acetaldehyde concentrations after ethanol consumption. The discomfort associated with this syndrome is intended to serve as a negative stimulus, but the reaction may be severe enough to cause hypotension and death.
In considering disulfiram toxicity, a distinction must be made between the clinical manifestations of a disulfiram-ethanol reaction (DER) and the toxic effects of disulfiram itself. Direct disulfiram toxicity may be further divided into acute poisoning versus chronic poisoning. The directly toxic effects of disulfiram include neurologic, cutaneous, and hepatotoxic sequelae in addition to the disulfiram-ethanol reaction.
Disulfiram received US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval for use in the treatment of alcoholism in 1951. At that time, it was commonly prescribed in very high doses, up to 3,000 mg a day in some cases. This resulted in a relatively high rate of extremely severe or fatal reactions. Today, much lower doses are used, and the incidence of disulfiram toxicity has waned.
Ethanol is mainly metabolized in the liver to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). Acetaldehyde is then oxidized to acetate by aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH). Disulfiram irreversibly inhibits the oxidation of acetaldehyde by competing with the cofactor nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) for binding sites on ALDH (see Media file 1).
Disulfiram toxicity has a particular classification with significant overlap. The first type of toxicity is the classic disulfiram-ethanol reaction, known as the acetaldehyde syndrome. Secondly, disulfiram has its own associated acute and chronic adverse drug reactions. Finally, disulfiram-like reactions are associated with many other substances that have an ethanol-like mechanism of toxicity with disulfiram.
The disulfiram-ethanol reaction (DER) is the classic manifestation of patients with disulfiram toxicity. This reaction occurs after the ingestion of even small amounts of ethanol with the concomitant use of disulfiram or disulfiramlike agents. Disulfiram toxicity may also occur in the absence of ethanol exposure. Direct toxic effects are seen with both chronic use and acute massive ingestion.
| Anaphylaxis | Toxicity, Medication-Induced Dystonic
Reactions |
| Delirium Tremens | Toxicity, Mushroom - Disulfiramlike
Toxins |
| Dermatitis, Contact | Toxicity, Mushroom - Gyromitra Toxin |
| Gastroenteritis | Toxicity, Mushrooms |
| Headache, Tension | Toxicity, Mushrooms |
| Hepatitis | Toxicity, Scombroid |
| Methemoglobinemia | Urinary Obstruction |
| Shock, Cardiogenic | Withdrawal Syndromes |
| Shock, Hypovolemic | |
| Syncope | |
| Toxicity, Ciguatera |
Metaldehyde toxicity
For patients with possible disulfiram-ethanol reaction, the following should be performed:
ED treatment of disulfiram-ethanol reaction (DER) is primarily supportive. No specific antidote has been tested for efficacy in the treatment of DER or acute disulfiram overdose, though fomepizole has the theoretical benefit of blocking ethanol metabolism to acetaldehyde and may be a useful therapy in patients presenting with DER. Patients with a severely altered mental status or coma should be intubated for airway protection. The risk of aspiration in patients with DER is high.
The goals of pharmacotherapy are to reduce morbidity and to prevent complications.
These agents are empirically used to minimize systemic absorption of the toxin.
Most useful if administered within 90 min of ingestion. Repeat doses may be used, especially with ingestion of sustained-release agents. Limited outcome studies exist, especially when administration is more than 1 h postingestion.
Administration of charcoal by itself (in aqueous solution), as opposed to coadministration with a cathartic, is becoming the current practice standard. This is because studies have not shown benefit from cathartics, and, while most drugs and toxins are absorbed within 30-90 min, laxatives take hours to work. Dangerous fluid and electrolyte shifts have occurred when cathartics are used in small children.
When ingested dose is known, charcoal may be administered at 10 times ingested dose of agent, over 1 or 2 doses.
1 g/kg PO/NG (50-75 g usual dose); may administer 0.5 g/kg PO/NG as repeat dose if desired
Cathartic not recommended
Administer as in adults (12.5-25 g usual dose)
Cathartic not recommended
May inactivate ipecac syrup if used concomitantly; effectiveness of other medications decreases with coadministration; decreased levels occur with coadministration of sherbet, milk, or ice cream
Documented hypersensitivity; poisoning or overdose of mineral acids and alkalies; unprotected airway with absent gag reflex or compromised ability to protect airway due to CNS depression expected
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Protect airway before administration in patients with absent gag reflex or a depressed level of consciousness; when considering repeat dosing, monitor for active bowel sounds to minimize risk of charcoal ileus
Treat hypotensive patients with IV crystalloid (eg, 0.9 NS or LR). If pressors are indicated, norepinephrine (Levophed) is DOC (over dopamine) because of catecholamine depletion.
Used in protracted hypotension following adequate fluid-volume replacement. Stimulates beta1- and alpha-adrenergic receptors, which, in turn, increases cardiac muscle contractility, heart rate, and vasoconstriction. As a result, systemic blood pressure and coronary blood flow increase.
After obtaining a response, adjust rate of flow to and maintain at a low normal blood pressure (eg, 80-100 mm Hg systolic), sufficient to perfuse vital organs.
4-8 mcg/min IV initial; titrate prn q5-10min
1-2 mcg/min IV or 0.1 mcg/kg/min IV initial; titrate prn
Arrhythmogenic in aromatic and halogenated hydrocarbon exposures; atropine may enhance the pressor response by blocking reflex bradycardia caused by norepinephrine
Documented hypersensitivity; peripheral or mesenteric vascular thrombosis because ischemia may be increased and area of the infarct extended
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Correct blood-volume depletion, if possible, before therapy; extravasation may cause severe tissue necrosis and, thus, should be administered into a large vein; caution in occlusive vascular disease
Antihistamine improves the flushing response in DER. Diphenhydramine (H1 blocker) and cimetidine or ranitidine (H2 blockers) may be beneficial. NSAIDs (eg, Toradol) may ameliorate flushing response by blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins.
H1-receptor blocker with antiparkinsonism, antiemetic, and anticholinergic response.
Used for symptomatic relief of symptoms caused by histamine released in response to allergens.
25-50 mg PO/IV/IM q6-8h
5 mg/kg/d PO/IV/IM in divided qid (0.5-1 mg/kg/dose)
Potentiates effect of CNS depressants; because of alcohol content, do not administer syrup dosage form to patient taking medications that can cause disulfiramlike reactions
Documented hypersensitivity; MAOIs
B - Fetal risk not confirmed in studies in humans but has been shown in some studies in animals
May exacerbate angle-closure glaucoma, hyperthyroidism, peptic ulcer, and urinary tract obstruction; adverse effects include sedation and paradoxical excitation
H2 antagonist that, when combined with an H1 type, may be useful for treating itching and flushing in anaphylaxis, pruritus, urticaria, and contact dermatitis that do not respond to H1 antagonists alone. Use in addition to H1 antihistamines.
300 mg IV/IM q6h, continuous infusion 37.5 mg/h (900 mg/d), 400 mg PO bid, or 400-800 mg qhs
40-60 mg/kg/d IV/IM
Can increase blood levels of theophylline, warfarin, tricyclic antidepressants, triamterene, phenytoin, quinidine, propranolol, metronidazole, procainamide, and lidocaine
Documented hypersensitivity
B - Fetal risk not confirmed in studies in humans but has been shown in some studies in animals
Elderly persons may experience confusion; may cause impotence and gynecomastia in young males; may increase levels of many drugs; adjust dose or discontinue treatment if changes in renal function occur
H2 antagonist that, when combined with an H1 type, may be useful in treating allergic reactions that do not respond to H1 antagonists alone.
50 mg IV q6-8h, continuous infusion at 6.25 mg/h, 150 mg PO bid, or 300 mg qhs
5-10 mg/kg/d
May decrease effects of ketoconazole and itraconazole; may alter serum levels of ferrous sulfate, diazepam, nondepolarizing muscle relaxants, and oxaprozin
Documented hypersensitivity
B - Fetal risk not confirmed in studies in humans but has been shown in some studies in animals
Caution in renal or liver impairment; if changes in renal function occur during therapy, consider adjusting dose or discontinuing treatment
NSAIDs may benefit by reducing the severity of the flushing response. Pyridoxine (vitamin B-6) may be useful in patients who demonstrate evidence of neurological toxicity or intractable seizures.
Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by decreasing the activity of cyclooxygenase, which results in decreased formation of prostaglandin precursors.
Load 30-60 mg IV/IM, then 15-30 mg IV/IM q6-8h (60-120 mg/d) or 10-20 mg PO first dose, then 10 mg PO q4-6h, not to exceed 40 mg/d
>65 y: Use lower doses within dosing range; do not exceed 2 wk duration of therapy
Not established
Coadministration with aspirin increases risk of inducing serious NSAID-related adverse effects; probenecid may increase concentrations and, possibly, toxicity of NSAIDs; may decrease effect of hydralazine, captopril, and beta-blockers; may decrease diuretic effects of furosemide and thiazides; monitor PT closely (instruct patients to watch for signs of bleeding); may increase risk of methotrexate toxicity; phenytoin levels may be increased when administered concurrently
Documented hypersensitivity; peptic ulcer disease; recent GI bleeding or perforation; renal insufficiency; high risk of bleeding; do not administer into CNS
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
D - Fetal risk shown in humans; use only if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Acute renal insufficiency, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, interstitial nephritis, and renal papillary necrosis may occur; increases risk of acute renal failure in patients with preexisting renal disease or compromised renal perfusion; low WBC counts (rare), usually return to normal during ongoing therapy; discontinue therapy if leukopenia, granulocytopenia, or thrombocytopenia persists
Used in the treatment of pyridoxine-dependent seizures. Involved in synthesis of GABA within CNS.
1 g IV initial; repeat prn
500 mg IV initial; repeat prn
May decrease levodopa, phenytoin, and phenobarbital serum levels; may act synergistically with benzodiazepines
Documented hypersensitivity
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
>200 mg/d may precipitate withdrawal effects when medication discontinued
These agents are useful in cases of vomiting to mitigate symptoms and to avoid volume depletion.
A promotility agent that increases gastric contractions, relaxes the pyloric sphincter and duodenal bulb, and increases peristalsis in the duodenum and jejunum. Exact mechanism is unknown, but metoclopramide may increase gastric emptying and decrease intestinal transit time by sensitizing tissues to the effects of acetylcholine. Has little or no effect on gastric, biliary, or pancreatic secretions, or on colon or gallbladder motility.
10 mg IV/IM q2-3h prn
0.4-0.8 mg/kg/d PO/IV/IM divided qid; not to exceed to 5 mg/dose
Sedative effects may be potentiated by CNS depressants such as ethanol and benzodiazepines; promotility effects of metoclopramide are antagonized by anticholinergic and opioid drugs; decreased gastric transit time may decrease absorption of drugs (eg, digoxin) or increase absorption of drugs from small intestine (eg, acetaminophen, tetracycline, ethanol, levodopa); caution in patients taking MAOIs because of increased catecholamine release caused by metoclopramide
Documented hypersensitivity; GI hemorrhage, perforation, or obstruction; pheochromocytoma
Relative contraindications include seizure disorder or presence of other drugs likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms or NMS
B - Fetal risk not confirmed in studies in humans but has been shown in some studies in animals
Associated with suicidal ideation in patients with history of depression; dystonic reactions may be observed; neuroleptic malignant syndrome reported; long-term use, particularly in elderly persons, may be associated with tardive dyskinesia; since metoclopramide may induce release of catecholamines and is associated with transient rise in plasma aldosterone may cause hypertension or volume overload in patients with history of hypertension, cirrhosis, or CHF; metoclopramide is largely excreted renally, and dose should be lowered in patients with renal impairment
Selective antagonist of serotonin 5HT3 receptors generally used to control chemotherapy-associated and postoperative nausea and vomiting. Precise mechanism of action is not known; however, ondansetron is thought to block either vagal stimulation of serotonin release in the central chemoreceptor trigger zone of the area postrema, or a vagally mediated vomiting reflex caused by release of serotonin from enterochromaffin cells of small intestine and stimulation of peripheral 5HT3 receptors, or both.
4 mg IV over 30 sec to 5 min
4-12 years: 100 mcg/kg IV over 30 sec to 5 min
>40 kg: 4 mg IV
Ondansetron is metabolized by hepatic cytochrome P-450 enzymes (CYP3A4, CYP2D6, CYP1A2); clearance is significantly increased by potent inducers of CYP3A4 (carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin), but no dosage adjustments have been recommended for patients on these medications
Patients with previous hypersensitivity reactions to ondansetron or other 5HT3 antagonists
B - Fetal risk not confirmed in studies in humans but has been shown in some studies in animals
Safety and clearance of ondansetron in patients with hepatic failure not studied, and its safety has not been studied in pregnancy or in children <3 y; increases large bowel transit time and should be used with caution in patients with possible subacute small-bowel obstruction; most frequently reported adverse effects are headache, constipation, and flushing; rare cases of tachycardia, bradycardia, hypotension, syncope, seizure, angina, and ECG abnormalities reported
An antinauseant and antiemetic available in PO and IV forms for use in severe postoperative and chemotherapy/radiation therapy-induced nausea. Granisetron is a selective antagonist of serotonin 5HT3 receptors. Precise mechanism of action not known; however, thought to block either vagal stimulation of serotonin release in central chemoreceptor trigger zone of area postrema, or a vagally mediated vomiting reflex caused by release of serotonin from enterochromaffin cells of small intestine and stimulation of peripheral 5HT3 receptors.
10 mcg/kg IV over 5 min
Not established
CYP-450 3A substrate, inducers (eg, phenobarbital) may decrease effect, while inhibitors (eg, erythromycin, clarithromycin) may increase toxicity
Documented hypersensitivity
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Caution in liver disease
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disulfiram toxicity, disulfiram, disulfiram poisoning, disulfiram exposure, alcohol treatment, Antabuse, acetaldehyde syndrome, disulfiram-ethanol reaction, DER, tetraethylthiuram disulfide, TETD, management of alcoholism, deterrent to ethanol abuse
Samara Soghoian, MD, MA, Clinical Assistant Professor of Emergency Medicine, New York University School of Medicine, Bellevue Hospital Center
Samara Soghoian, MD, MA is a member of the following medical societies: American Academy of Clinical Toxicology, American College of Medical Toxicology, and Society for Academic Emergency Medicine
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Sage W Wiener, MD, Assistant Professor, Department of Emergency Medicine, State University of New York Downstate, Director of Medical Toxicology, Department of Emergency Medicine, Kings County Hospital Center
Sage W Wiener, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American Academy of Clinical Toxicology, American Academy of Emergency Medicine, American College of Medical Toxicology, and Society for Academic Emergency Medicine
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
José Eric Díaz-Alcalá, MD, FAAEM,, Consulting Staff in Medicine Service, Division of Emergency Medicine/Medical Toxicology, Veterans Affairs Caribbean Healthcare System; Medical Director, Puerto Rico Poison Control Center, San Juan, Puerto Rico
José Eric Díaz-Alcalá, MD, FAAEM, is a member of the following medical societies: American Academy of Emergency Medicine and American College of Medical Toxicology
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
David C Lee, MD, Research Director, Department of Emergency Medicine, Associate Professor, North Shore University Hospital and New York University Medical School
David C Lee, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American Academy of Emergency Medicine, American College of Emergency Physicians, American College of Medical Toxicology, and Society for Academic Emergency Medicine
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
John T VanDeVoort, PharmD, Regional Director of Pharmacy, Sacred Heart & St. Joseph's Hospitals
John T VanDeVoort, PharmD is a member of the following medical societies: American Society of Health-System Pharmacists
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
John G Benitez, MD, MPH, FACMT, FACPM, FAAEM, Associate Professor, Department of Medicine, Clinical Pharmacology Division, Vanderbilt University; Managing Director, Tennessee Poison Center
John G Benitez, MD, MPH, FACMT, FACPM, FAAEM is a member of the following medical societies: American Academy of Emergency Medicine, American College of Medical Toxicology, American College of Preventive Medicine, Society for Academic Emergency Medicine, Undersea and Hyperbaric Medical Society, and Wilderness Medical Society
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
John D Halamka, MD, MS, Associate Professor of Medicine, Harvard Medical School, Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center; Chief Information Officer, CareGroup Healthcare System and Harvard Medical School; Attending Physician, Division of Emergency Medicine, Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center
John D Halamka, MD, MS is a member of the following medical societies: American College of Emergency Physicians, American Medical Informatics Association, Phi Beta Kappa, and Society for Academic Emergency Medicine
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Asim Tarabar, MD, Assistant Professor, Director, Medical Toxicology, Department of Emergency Medicine, Yale University School of Medicine; Consulting Staff, Department of Emergency Medicine, Yale-New Haven Hospital
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
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