Updated: Sep 19, 2008
Atrial flutter is an electrocardiographic descriptor used both specifically and nonspecifically to describe various atrial tachycardias. The term was originally applied to adults with regular atrial depolarizations at a rate of 260-340 beats per minute (bpm). Historically, the diagnosis of atrial flutter was restricted to those patients whose surface ECG revealed the classic appearance of "flutter waves." This sharp demarcation is used less frequently in the current era.
In the fetus, atrial flutter is defined as a rapid regular atrial rate of 300-600 bpm accompanied by variable degrees of atrioventricular (AV) conduction block, resulting in slower ventricular rates.
When the atrial rate is such, normal AV nodes usually have a physiologic second-degree block, with a resultant 2:1 conduction ratio. In individuals with AV nodal disease or increased vagal tone, or when certain drugs are used, higher degrees of AV block may develop. In individuals with accessory AV nodal pathways, a 1:1 conduction ratio may occur, with resultant ventricular rates of 260-340 bpm, which can cause sudden death. A 1:1 conduction ratio may also occur when the atrial rate is relatively slow (eg, <340 bpm) during atrial flutter or when physiologic processes facilitate AV nodal conduction such that a rapid ventricular response can still result in sudden death.
Atrial flutter is infrequent in children without congenital heart disease. Patients who have undergone Mustard, Senning, or Fontan procedures are more prone to develop this arrhythmia because of atrial scars from surgery and right atrial enlargement, such as is found after the classic Fontan operation.
Similarly, patients who have undergone surgical repair of atrial septal defect, total anomalous pulmonary venous connection, and tetralogy of Fallot may later develop atrial flutter. Individuals with muscular dystrophies such as Emery-Dreifuss and myotonic dystrophy may also develop atrial flutter, as well as those with dilated, restrictive, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies.
The pathophysiology of atrial flutter is a reentrant arrhythmia circuit confined to the atrial chambers. Such a circuit may be macroscopic and, therefore, amenable to mapping by techniques using standard electrophysiologic catheters or it may be microscopic and amenable to mapping only in the research laboratory using fine electrode arrays.
As a rule, atrial flutter originates in the right atrium, whereas atrial fibrillation, which is more frequent in adults, originates in the left atrium.
A flutter circuit typically surrounds an anatomical or functional barrier and includes a zone of slow conduction (or conduction over an extended circuit) and an area of unidirectional block, as required for reentry of all types. Frequently, a premature beat blocks one limb of the circuit and is sufficiently delayed in the other limb (while traversing around the anatomical or functional barrier) to allow for recovery from refractoriness in the first limb.
The reentrant circuits that occur in children with atrial flutter after congenital heart disease surgery are typically more variable than those in adults, who generally have atrial flutter confined to the tricuspid valve–coronary sinus isthmus (or isthmus-dependent flutter). The difference in children with congenital heart disease is believed to be secondary to abnormal atrial tissue that has been subject to chronic cyanosis, inflammation secondary to surgery, scarring, and increased wall stress in cases of enlarged atria. Such circuits may encircle anatomical barriers such as atriotomy scars or surgical anastomoses, and they may use areas of slow conduction along baffle limbs and other sites of injury in addition to the tricuspid valve–coronary sinus isthmus.
Sinus node dysfunction with bradycardia is generally present in many of these patients years after surgery. This is a contributing factor for development and maintenance of atrial flutter.
According to one study, 57% of patients with double inlet left ventricle who undergo the Fontan operation may be expected to present with atrial flutter or fibrillation 20 years after surgery.1
In patients who present with atrial flutter, morbidity and mortality largely depend on their age at presentation, cardiac anatomy (normal anatomy vs congenital heart disease), integrity and anatomy of the myocardial conduction system (normal sinus node vs sinus node dysfunction; AV block vs normal AV node, with or without accessory pathways), ventricular function, and availability of prompt recognition of the arrhythmia by the physician and initiation of adequate therapy.
Following atrial septal defect repair, the prevalence of atrial flutter is higher in females (70.7%) than in males.
As implied above, the prevalence and outcome of atrial flutter depend on the patient's age at presentation and associated causes.
Historical aspects of atrial flutter are important in designing a treatment plan, particularly in the setting of repaired congenital heart disease.
Physical examination in patients with atrial flutter should complement the history discussed above.
Supraventricular Tachycardia, Atrial Ectopic
Tachycardia
Supraventricular Tachycardia, Atrioventricular
Node Reentry
Supraventricular Tachycardia, Junctional Ectopic
Tachycardia
Supraventricular Tachycardia,
Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome
Ventricular Tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Chaotic atrial tachycardia
Drug therapy of atrial flutter in children can be classified under the 3 broad headings of ventricular rate control, acute conversion, and chronic suppression.
Digoxin is relatively safe for preventing rapid conduction of atrial flutter via the atrioventricular (AV) node to the ventricles, and some evidence indicates that this reduces symptomatology during flutter. Nevertheless, digoxin is unlikely to be particularly effective in the acute conversion or prevention of atrial flutter recurrence. It is devoid of negative inotropic effects (as is amiodarone) and is useful to control ventricular rate when using propafenone, flecainide, or procainamide.
Intravenous procainamide has been used with variable success to effect acute conversion of atrial flutter to sinus rhythm. Procainamide infusion should be preceded by digitalization to prevent procainamide-induced acceleration of AV node conduction to the ventricles.
The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved the novel Vaughan Williams class III agents ibutilide and dofetilide for acute conversion of atrial flutter and fibrillation. Both are more effective than other medications in converting atrial flutter, but their use is associated with QT prolongation with a nontrivial risk of induction of torsade de pointes polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Clinical experience in adults is limited, and efficacy, dosing, and safety in children have not been established. Therefore, further drug information on this agent cannot be provided at this time.
Fetal atrial flutter is the second most common intrauterine tachyarrhythmia. Treatment is aimed at controlling ventricular rate and, thus, avoiding hydrops fetalis. First-line treatment is digoxin administered to the mother, which provides a conversion rate to sinus rhythm of 45-52%. In addition, its positive inotropic effect may be beneficial. Sotalol has also been used in numerous cases with success. Maternal drug levels were not reliable predictors of successful therapy.9,10 Flecainide alone or in combination with digoxin is used as second-line treatment. Fetal atrial flutter in a structurally normal heart seldom recurs after conversion before or after birth, and postnatal suppressive antiarrhythmic therapy may not be necessary.
Flutter in patients with repaired or palliated structural congenital lesions is more likely to recur, and long-term antiarrhythmic therapy aimed at flutter suppression is often instituted after the first or the second flutter episode.
Vaughan Williams class IC (eg, flecainide, propafenone) or class III (eg, sotalol, amiodarone) agents have been prescribed with variable success. Some authors have cautioned against use of flecainide in this setting, but the data are equivocal. Combinations of agents occasionally succeed after failure of single-agent therapy. Use of antiarrhythmic agents other than digoxin for the long-term suppression of atrial flutter in sinus node disease (a frequent coexisting finding) is particularly controversial. In patients with atrial flutter who have had the Mustard procedure, treatment with quinidine was associated with case reports of sudden death. This resulted in the recommendation of antibradycardia pacing initiation before antiarrhythmic drug therapy in these patients. This recommendation has gradually broadened to encompass other antiarrhythmic agents in patients with other types of repaired congenital heart disease.
Rapid, consistent, and safe temporary ventricular rate control can be obtained in children with diltiazem.
Antibradycardia pacing may be directly advantageous in flutter suppression by reducing the frequency of flutter-inducing pauses and premature beats. It also provides a safety factor for more aggressive antiflutter drug therapy.
These agents alter the electrophysiologic mechanisms responsible for arrhythmia.
Cardiac glycoside with direct inotropic effects in addition to indirect effects on the cardiovascular system. Acts directly on cardiac muscle, increasing myocardial systolic contractions. Its indirect actions result in increased carotid sinus nerve activity and enhanced sympathetic withdrawal for any given increase in mean arterial pressure.
0.125-0.375 mg PO qd
10 mcg/kg/d (0.01 mg/kg/d) PO
Medications that may increase serum digoxin levels include alprazolam, benzodiazepines, bepridil, captopril, cyclosporine, propafenone, propantheline, quinidine, diltiazem, aminoglycosides, PO amiodarone, anticholinergics, diphenoxylate, erythromycin, felodipine, flecainide, hydroxychloroquine, itraconazole, nifedipine, omeprazole, quinine, ibuprofen, indomethacin, esmolol, tetracycline, tolbutamide, and verapamil; medications that may decrease serum digoxin levels include aminoglutethimide, antihistamines, cholestyramine, neomycin, penicillamine, aminoglycosides, PO colestipol, hydantoins, hypoglycemic agents, antineoplastic treatment combinations (eg, carmustine, bleomycin, methotrexate, cytarabine, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, procarbazine), aluminum or magnesium antacids, rifampin, sucralfate, sulfasalazine, barbiturates, kaolin/pectin, and aminosalicylic acid
Documented hypersensitivity; Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome; tetralogy of Fallot (prerepair); beriberi heart disease; idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis; constrictive pericarditis; carotid sinus syndrome
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Hypokalemia may reduce the positive inotropic effect of digitalis; IV calcium may produce arrhythmias in digitalized patients; hypercalcemia predisposes patient to digitalis toxicity, and hypocalcemia can make digoxin ineffective until serum calcium levels are within the reference range; magnesium replacement therapy must be instituted in patients with hypomagnesemia to prevent digitalis toxicity; AV block may progress to complete block when treated with digoxin; exercise caution in hypothyroidism, hypoxia, and acute myocarditis
Class IA antiarrhythmic used for PVCs. Increases refractory period of atria and ventricles. Myocardiac excitability is reduced by increase in threshold for excitation and inhibition of ectopic pacemaker activity.
0.5-1 g PO q6h (as sustained release)
Loading dose: 30 mg/min IV at continued infusion rates until arrhythmia is suppressed, patient becomes hypotensive, QRS widens to 50% above baseline, or a maximum dose of 17 mg/kg is administered
Once arrhythmia is suppressed, may infuse at a continuous rate of 1-4 mg/min
Loading dose: 10 mg/kg IV over 20 min
Maintenance dose: 20-80 mcg/kg/min IV
Can expect increased levels of procainamide metabolite NAPA in patients taking cimetidine, ranitidine, beta-blockers, amiodarone, trimethoprim, and quinidine; may increase effect of skeletal muscle relaxants, quinidine, lidocaine, and neuromuscular blockers; ofloxacin inhibits tubular secretion of procainamide and may increase bioavailability; when taken concurrently with sparfloxacin, may increase risk of cardiotoxicity
Documented hypersensitivity; complete heart block or second- or third-degree heart block if pacemaker is not in place; torsade de pointes; systemic lupus erythematosus
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Monitor for hypotension; plasma concentrations of procainamide and its active metabolite, NAPA, may increase in renal failure; high or toxic concentrations may induce AV block or abnormal automaticity; caution in complete AV block, digitalis intoxication, organic heart disease, renal disease, and hepatic insufficiency
Treats life-threatening arrhythmias. Possibly works by reducing spontaneous automaticity and prolonging refractory period.
150 mg PO q8h initial; may increase at q3-4d; not to exceed 300 mg q8h
150-400 mg/m2/d PO divided tid/qid
Decreases serum levels of rifampin; cimetidine, quinidine, warfarin, and beta-blockers may increase serum levels
Documented hypersensitivity; bronchospastic disorders; conduction disorders; bradycardia; uncontrolled heart failure
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Only use for life-threatening arrhythmias; caution in patients with congestive heart failure, myocardial infarction, or hepatic or renal dysfunction
May inhibit AV conduction and sinus node function. Prolongs action potential and refractory period in myocardium and inhibits adrenergic stimulation.
Before administration, control ventricular rate and CHF (if present) with digoxin.
Loading dose: 800-1600 mg/d PO in 1-2 doses for 1-3 wk, decrease to 600-800 mg/d in 1-2 doses for 1 mo
Alternatively, 150 mg (10 mL) IV over first 10 min, followed by 360 mg (200 mL) over next 6 h and then 540 mg over next 18 h
Maintenance dose: 400 mg/d PO
Loading dose: 5-15 mg/kg IV over 1 h; 10 mg/kg/d PO for 7 d
Maintenance dose: 5-15 mcg/kg/min IV; 5-7.5 mg/kg/d PO
Increases effect and blood levels of theophylline, quinidine, procainamide, phenytoin, methotrexate, flecainide, digoxin, cyclosporine, beta-blockers, and anticoagulants; cardiotoxicity is increased by ritonavir, sparfloxacin, and disopyramide; coadministration with calcium channel blockers may cause an additive effect and decrease myocardial contractility further; cimetidine may increase levels
Documented hypersensitivity; complete AV block; intraventricular conduction defects; patients taking ritonavir or sparfloxacin
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Caution in thyroid or liver disease
AV nodal blocking agent. Administered IV temporarily (ie, <24 h) until definitive treatment can be initiated.
0.25 mg/kg IV administered over 2 min initial, followed by a continuous IV infusion of 5 mg/h; typical dose is 5-10 mg/h; not to exceed 15 mg/h
0.25 mg/kg IV administered over 5 min initial, followed by 0.1 mg/kg/h
May increase carbamazepine, digoxin, cyclosporine, and theophylline levels; when administered with amiodarone, may cause bradycardia and a decrease in cardiac output; when administered with beta-blockers may increase cardiac depression; cimetidine may increase diltiazem levels
Documented hypersensitivity; severe CHF; sick sinus syndrome; second- or third-degree AV block; hypotension (<90 mm Hg systolic)
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Caution in impaired renal or hepatic function; may increase LFT levels and hepatic injury may occur
Treats life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. Causes a prolongation of refractory periods and decreases action potential without affecting duration. Blocks sodium channels, producing a dose-related decrease in intracardiac conduction in all parts of the heart with greatest effect on the His-Purkinje system (H-V conduction). Effects on AV nodal conduction time and intra-atrial conduction times, although present, are less pronounced than on ventricular conduction velocity.
100 mg PO q12h; may increase by 100 mg/d q4d until adequate response achieved; not to exceed 400 mg/d
Initial dose: 1-3 mg/kg/d or 50-100 mg/m2/d PO divided tid; may increase gradually by 50 mg/m2/d q5d until adequate response achieved; not to exceed 8 mg/kg/d (200 mg/m2/d); children <6 mo initiate at lowest dose
Maintenance dose: 3-6 mg/kg/d or 100-150 mg/m2/d PO divided tid is typical dose
Amiodarone, cimetidine, and digoxin may increase plasma concentrations; beta-adrenergic blockers, verapamil, and disopyramide may have additive inotropic effects when administered with flecainide; ritonavir may increase cardiotoxicity
Documented hypersensitivity; third AV block; myocardial depression
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Caution in renal or hepatic impairment
Class III antiarrhythmic agent, which blocks potassium channels, prolongs action potential duration, and lengthens QT interval. Noncardiac selective beta-adrenergic blocker.
80 mg PO bid, increase dose gradually q2-3d to 240-320 mg/d
Not established; the following doses have been suggested:
Initial: 200 mg/m2/d PO divided bid/tid; not to exceed 160 mg/d
Maintenance: 2-8 mg/kg/d (40-350 mg/m2/d) PO divided bid/tid
Aluminum salts, barbiturates, NSAIDs, penicillins, calcium salts, cholestyramine, and rifampin may decrease bioavailability and plasma levels, possibly resulting in decreased pharmacologic effect; cardiotoxicity of sotalol may increase when administered concurrently with sparfloxacin, astemizole, calcium channel blockers, quinidine, flecainide, and contraceptives; toxicity increases when administered concurrently with digoxin, flecainide, acetaminophen, clonidine, epinephrine, nifedipine, prazosin, haloperidol, phenothiazines, and catecholamine-depleting agents
Documented hypersensitivity; sinus bradycardia; second- and third-degree AV block
B - Fetal risk not confirmed in studies in humans but has been shown in some studies in animals
Beta-adrenergic blockade may decrease signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia and clinical signs of hyperthyroidism; abrupt withdrawal may exacerbate symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including thyroid storm; withdraw drug slowly and monitor patient closely; caution in hypokalemia, peripheral vascular disease, hypomagnesemia, congestive heart failure, and congestive heart failure
Newer class III antiarrhythmic agent that may work by increasing action potential duration, thereby changing atrial cycle length variability. Mean time to conversion is 30 min. Two-thirds of patients who converted were in sinus rhythm at 24 h. Ventricular arrhythmias occurred in 9.6% of patients and were mostly PVCs. The incidence of Torsades was <2%.
<60 kg: 0.01 mg/kg IV infused over 10 min
>60 kg: 1 mg IV infused over 10 min
Not established
Increases toxicity of quinidine and procainamide; concurrent administration with tricyclic antidepressants and phenothiazines may prolong QT interval; toxicity of digoxin increases when administered concurrently
Documented hypersensitivity
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Caution in renal or hepatic impairment
Recently approved by FDA for maintenance of sinus rhythm. Increases monophasic action potential duration, primarily because of delayed repolarization. Terminates induced reentrant tachyarrhythmias (eg, atrial fibrillation/flutter, ventricular tachycardia) and prevents their reinduction. Does not affect cardiac output, cardiac index, stroke volume index, or systemic vascular resistance in patients with ventricular tachycardia, mild-to-moderate CHF, angina, and either normal or reduced LVEF. No evidence of negative inotropic effect.
The dose must be adjusted according to the CrCl and to the QTc; requires initiation in an inpatient monitored setting
Starting dose:
CrCl >60 mL/min: 500 mcg PO bid
CrCl 40-60 mL/min: 250 mcg PO bid
CrCl 20-40 mL/min: 125 mcg PO bid
CrCl <20 mL/min: Use contraindicated
If QTc has increased >15% or is >500 ms 2-3 h after administering first dose, decrease dose as follows:
Starting dose was 500 mcg PO bid: Reduce to 250 mcg PO bid
Starting dose was 250 mcg PO bid: Reduce to 125 mcg PO bid
Starting dose was 125 mcg PO bid: Reduce to 125 mcg PO qd
Discontinue if the QTc is >500 ms any time after the second dose
Not established
Coadministration with other class III antiarrhythmic agents (eg, amiodarone, sotalol), may prolong QT interval and induce dangerous arrhythmias; other drugs that may prolong QT interval (eg, verapamil, gatifloxacin, erythromycin) may also increase risk for arrhythmia; drugs that decrease renal tubular excretion (eg, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, triamterene, metformin) may interfere with dofetilide elimination and increase toxicity; CYP450 3A4 inhibitors (eg, ketoconazole) may elevate dofetilide serum levels; potassium-depleting diuretics, digoxin, cimetidine, phenothiazines, prochlorperazine, amiloride, megestrol, and other antiarrhythmic agents may increase toxicity
Documented hypersensitivity; concomitant use of verapamil or the cation transport system inhibitor cimetidine, trimethoprim (alone or in combination with sulfamethoxazole), or ketoconazole; congenital or acquired long QT syndromes; severe renal impairment (ie, CrCl <20 mL/min); prochlorperazine and megestrol coadministration; a baseline QT interval or QTc >440 ms (500 ms in patients with ventricular conduction abnormalities)
C - Fetal risk revealed in studies in animals but not established or not studied in humans; may use if benefits outweigh risk to fetus
Hypokalemia may increase risk for arrhythmias; maintain potassium levels within reference range prior to and during administration to minimize risk of inducing arrhythmia; CrCl calculation required for accurate dosing; continuous ECG monitoring must be performed to monitor QT interval changes; cardiac resuscitation equipment and personnel must be present
Thrombosis and thromboembolic events are recognized complications in patients with atrial flutter, particularly in the setting of repaired congenital heart disease.
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atrial flutter, intra-atrial reentrant tachycardia, IART, incisional reentrant atrial tachycardia, IRAT, atrial reentry, auricular flutter, jugular embryocardia, supraventricular tachycardia, SVT, atrioventricular block, second-degree atrioventricular block, congenital heart disease, atrial septal defect, total anomalous pulmonary venous connection, tetralogy of Fallot, muscular dystrophy, Emery-Dreifuss dystrophy, myotonic dystrophy, cardiomyopathy, dilated cardiomyopathy, restrictive cardiomyopathy, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, atrial fibrillation, sinus node dysfunction, hydrops fetalis, syncope, presyncope, pacemaker therapy
M Silvana Horenstein, MD, Consultant, Pediatric and Fetal Cardiac Diagnostic, Diagnostico Gineco-Obstetrico, PC; Associate Medical Director, Legacy Department, Best Doctors, Inc
M Silvana Horenstein, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American Academy of Pediatrics, American College of Cardiology, and American Medical Association
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Robert Murray Hamilton, MD, MSc, FRCPC, Section Head, Electrophysiology, Director, High-Risk Hereditary Heart Conditions Clinic, Labatt Family Heart Centre; Professor, Department of Pediatrics, Associate Scientist, Physiology and Experimental Medicine, The Hospital for Sick Children and Research Institute, University of Toronto, Canada
Robert Murray Hamilton, MD, MSc, FRCPC is a member of the following medical societies: American Heart Association, Canadian Cardiovascular Society, Canadian Medical Association, Canadian Medical Protective Association, Cardiac Electrophysiology Society, Heart Rhythm Society, Ontario Medical Association, Pediatric Electrophysiology Society, Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada, and Society for Pediatric Research
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Charles I Berul, MD, Associate Professor of Pediatrics, Harvard Medical School; Senior Associate, Department of Cardiology, Children's Hospital of Boston
Charles I Berul, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American Academy of Pediatrics, American College of Cardiology, American Heart Association, Heart Rhythm Society, and Society for Pediatric Research
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Mary L Windle, PharmD, Adjunct Assistant Professor, University of Nebraska Medical Center College of Pharmacy, Pharmacy Editor, eMedicine
Disclosure: Pfizer Inc Stock Investment from financial planner; Avanir Pharma Stock Investment from financial planner ; WebMD Salary and stock Employment and investment from financial planner
Alvin J Chin, MD, Professor of Pediatrics, Division of Cardiology, The Children's Hospital of Philadelphia, University of Pennsylvania School of Medicine
Alvin J Chin, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American Association for the Advancement of Science and American Heart Association
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Gilbert Herzberg, MD, Assistant Professor, Department of Pediatrics, Section of Pediatric Cardiology, New York Medical College
Gilbert Herzberg, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American Academy of Pediatrics
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
Steven R Neish, MD, SM, Director of Pediatric Cardiology Fellowship Program, Associate Professor, Department of Pediatrics, Baylor College of Medicine
Steven R Neish, MD, SM is a member of the following medical societies: American Academy of Pediatrics, American College of Cardiology, and American Heart Association
Disclosure: Nothing to disclose.
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